## CAT diagnostic

This Free CAT Diagnostic Test has 24 questions. It offers a simple way to understand the type of questions to expect in the CAT. The Quantitative Reasoning questions cover topics like number properties, algebra, coordinates, permutation and combination, arithmetic word problems – percentages, time and distance, etc. The Verbal reasoning section consists of questions on Verbal reasoning and Reading comprehension. Some of the questions have been developed in-house and some borrowed from different sources (which are widely available).

After the completion of the test, a score will be given as a percentage. Expected Percentage to CAT score conversion (this is NOT an exact conversion):

• Less than 20%: Below 20 percentile => You need to work a lot on your prep
• 20% to less than 40%: 20 to 40 percentile => You have basic idea of what the CAT is. Keep at it
• 40% to less than 60%: 40 to 60 percentile => Decent! But still lacking in multiple concepts.
• 60% to less than 80%: 60 to 80 percentile => You are pretty much there. Need a bit of final push
• 80% or above: 80 to 99 percentile => You are almost there and maybe ready for the actual test with some brushing up

CAT Diagnostic Test

Welcome to your GMAT DIAGNOSTIC TEST

The quiz contains 24 questions - 10 on Quantitative reasoning, 6 on LRDI and 8 on Verbal ability (4 on  verbal reasoning and 4 on Reading comprehension).

You have 45 minutes to mark your responses.

All the best!

1 / 24

Some animals, such as dolphins, dogs, and African grey parrots, seem to exhibit cognitive functions typically associated with higher-order primates such as chimpanzees, gorillas, and humans. Some parrots, for example, have vocabularies of hundreds of words that they can string together in a comprehensible syntax. This clearly shows that humans and primates are not the only animals capable of using language to communicate. One parrot, named Alex, has been known to ask to be petted or kissed and will exhibit aggression if the gesture offered is not the specific one requested.

Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the conclusion above?

2 / 24

The noise caused by airplanes during takeoff and landing imposes a large burden on people who live or work near airports. When airports operate late at night or early in the morning, the disturbance can disrupt normal sleeping patterns, even leading to severe sleep deprivation disorders. When the flight paths of airplanes lie too close to the ground, the resulting noise interferes with work performance in nearby businesses and the peaceful enjoyment of life by residents in the proximity. However, the operation of an airport, unlike a neighbor who simply plays music too loudly, provides a valuable benefit to the surrounding community, in the form of convenient transportation for both personal and economic purposes. Thus the only option is to establish standards for the reasonable operation of airports and fine those that violate the guidelines.

The bold phrase plays which of the following roles in the argument above?

3 / 24

If the price of a Samsung TV in Q1 and Q2 was Rs 36000 and Rs 32000, respectively, what was the average revenue generated in Q1 and Q2 considering sales of all TVs? Assume that the revenue share of Samsung in Q2 was 25% more than that in Q1.

4 / 24

What was the approximate average price of a Samsung TV in Q2? Assume that the average price of an LG TV was Rs 32000. – medium

5 / 24

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G contested in a game show that had total prize money of Rs 14 lakhs. Every contestant won some prize money and the highest prize money was Rs 3 lakhs. No two contestants won the same amount of prize money. For every contestant the difference with the next highest and next lowest winner is the same.
E won Rs 2 lakhs.
B won more than A.
The difference of prize money between B and A was the minimum.
The difference of prize money between D and F was not the least.
There was at least one person whose prize money was between that of E and G

If the difference of prize money between A and C is the minimum, which of the following pairs must not have won prize money that differs by the minimal amount?

6 / 24

Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G contested in a game show that had total prize money of Rs 14 lakhs. Every contestant won some prize money and the highest prize money was Rs 3 lakhs. No two contestants won the same amount of prize money. For every contestant the difference with the next highest and next lowest winner is the same.
E won Rs 2 lakhs.
B won more than A.
The difference of prize money between B and A was the minimum.
The difference of prize money between D and F was not the least.
There was at least one person whose prize money was between that of E and G

Which of the following is a proper list of persons in increasing order of prize money won?

7 / 24

As the economic role of multinational, global corporations expands, the international economic environment will be shaped increasingly not by governments or international institutions, but by the interaction between governments and global corporations, especially in the United States, Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in this shifting world economy is the trend toward regional trading blocs of nations, which has a potentially large effect on the evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of this trend are the United States-Canada Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the European Community (EC) to dismantle impediments to the free flow of goods, services, capital, and labor among member states by the end of 1992. However, although numerous political and economic factors were operative in launching the move to integrate the EC’s markets, concern about protectionism within the EC does not appear to have been a major consideration. This is in sharp contrast to the FTA; the overwhelming reason for that bilateral initiative was fear of increasing United States protectionism. Nonetheless, although markedly different in origin and nature, both regional developments are highly significant in that they will foster integration in the two largest and richest markets of the world, as well as provoke questions about the future direction of the world trading system.

According to the passage, all of the following are elements of the shifting world economy EXCEPT

8 / 24

As the economic role of multinational, global corporations expands, the international economic environment will be shaped increasingly not by governments or international institutions, but by the interaction between governments and global corporations, especially in the United States, Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in this shifting world economy is the trend toward regional trading blocs of nations, which has a potentially large effect on the evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of this trend are the United States-Canada Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the European Community (EC) to dismantle impediments to the free flow of goods, services, capital, and labor among member states by the end of 1992. However, although numerous political and economic factors were operative in launching the move to integrate the EC’s markets, concern about protectionism within the EC does not appear to have been a major consideration. This is in sharp contrast to the FTA; the overwhelming reason for that bilateral initiative was fear of increasing United States protectionism. Nonetheless, although markedly different in origin and nature, both regional developments are highly significant in that they will foster integration in the two largest and richest markets of the world, as well as provoke questions about the future direction of the world trading system.

The passage suggests which of the following about global corporations?

9 / 24

As the economic role of multinational, global corporations expands, the international economic environment will be shaped increasingly not by governments or international institutions, but by the interaction between governments and global corporations, especially in the United States, Europe, and Japan. A significant factor in this shifting world economy is the trend toward regional trading blocs of nations, which has a potentially large effect on the evolution of the world trading system. Two examples of this trend are the United States-Canada Free Trade Agreement (FTA) and Europe 1992, the move by the European Community (EC) to dismantle impediments to the free flow of goods, services, capital, and labor among member states by the end of 1992. However, although numerous political and economic factors were operative in launching the move to integrate the EC’s markets, concern about protectionism within the EC does not appear to have been a major consideration. This is in sharp contrast to the FTA; the overwhelming reason for that bilateral initiative was fear of increasing United States protectionism. Nonetheless, although markedly different in origin and nature, both regional developments are highly significant in that they will foster integration in the two largest and richest markets of the world, as well as provoke questions about the future direction of the world trading system.

The primary purpose of the passage as a whole is to

10 / 24

The sentences given in each question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labeled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(A) The situations in which violence occurs and the nature of the violence tends to clearly defined at least in theory, as in the proverbial Irishman’s question: Is this a private fight or can anyone join in?

(B) So the actual risk to outsiders, though no doubt higher than our societies, is calculable.

(C) Probably the only uncontrolled applications of force are those of social superiors to social inferiors and even here there are probably some rules.

(D) However binding the obligation to kill, members of feuding families engaged in mutual massacre will be genuinely appalled if by some mischance a bystander or outsider is killed

11 / 24

The sentences given in each question, when arranged in the proper sequence, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

(A) But I think that what is important in cultural education should be conveyed, at any rate in the early stages, by methods far more attractive than those now usual.

(B) I do not suggest that the cultural side of education should be ignored.

(C) History and geography should be taught at first by means of the cinema.

(D) I think, on the contrary, that it is essential for the production of the sort of adult who best fits the modern world.

(E) When taught in this way, they will give pleasure and attention will be spontaneous and therefore the impression will not be temporary.

12 / 24

As the largest and the fastest growing economy in South Asia, it is inevitable that India will be a magnet for migrant workers from its poorer neighbours. Rather than treating such labour flows as a problem, the Union government must put in place, mechanisms to regulate and even harness immigration. (....)
Choose the best option that can fit in the (...) above:

13 / 24

During one week, a human resource director conducts five interviews for a new job, one interview per day, Monday through Friday. There are six candidates for the job- Ram, Shyam,Trilochan, Usha, Veena and Kishore. No more than two candidates are interviewed more than once. Neither Shyam nor Usha nor Veena is interviewed more than once, and no other candidate is interviewed more than twice. The schedule of interviews is subject to the following conditions:

• If Trilochan is interviewed then he must be interviewed both on Monday and Friday.
• If Shyam is interviewed, then Usha is also interviewed, with Shyam’s interview taking place earlier than Usha’s interview.
• If Ram is interviewed twice, then his 2nd interview takes place exactly two days after his 1st interview.
• If Veena is interviewed, then Kishore is interviewed twice, with Veena’s interview taking place after Kishore’s 1st interview but before his 2nd interview.
• If Usha is interviewed then Ram is also interviewed, with Usha’s interview taking place on a day either immediately before or immediately after a day on which Ram was interviewed.

Which of the following could be a complete and accurate list of candidates the human resources director interviews and the days on which those interviews take place?

14 / 24

During one week, a human resource director conducts five interviews for a new job, one interview per day, Monday through Friday. There are six candidates for the job- Ram, Shyam,Trilochan, Usha, Veena and Kishore. No more than two candidates are interviewed more than once. Neither Shyam nor Usha nor Veena is interviewed more than once, and no other candidate is interviewed more than twice. The schedule of interviews is subject to the following conditions:

• If Trilochan is interviewed then he must be interviewed both on Monday and Friday.
• If Shyam is interviewed, then Usha is also interviewed, with Shyam’s interview taking place earlier than Usha’s interview.
• If Ram is interviewed twice, then his 2nd interview takes place exactly two days after his 1st interview.
• If Veena is interviewed, then Kishore is interviewed twice, with Veena’s interview taking place after Kishore’s 1st interview but before his 2nd interview.
• If Usha is interviewed then Ram is also interviewed, with Usha’s interview taking place on a day either immediately before or immediately after a day on which Ram was interviewed.

If Shyam is interviewed, then which one of the following could be true?

15 / 24

Probability of a bomb hitting a target is 1/2. How many bombs should you fire at the target to ensure that the probability of the target getting destroyed becomes at least 0.9? (A bomb has a 100% rate of destroying a target provided it hits)

16 / 24

A salesman gets a fixed salary of Rs 5000 and a commission of 5% on sales above \$10000 per month. If, instead, he got a fixed salary of  \$6000 and a commission of 4% on sales above \$8000, he would have had \$1040 more salary at the end of the month. Which of the following can be his sales (in dollars)?

I. \$9000
II. \$12000
III. \$14000

17 / 24

Suppose N is an integer such that the sum of the digits of N is 2, and 109 < N < 1010. How many values of N are possible?

18 / 24

Three vertices of a parallelogram, taken in order, are (a+b, a-b), (2a+b, 2a-b) and (a-b, a+b). What are the coordinates of the fourth vertex?

19 / 24

In a group of 100 students, each student has to opt for one or more of the three subjects among Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics.  The number of students who opted for Mathematics is more than the number of students who opted for Physics, which, in turn, is more than the number of students who opted for Chemistry, which, in turn, is more than the number of students who opted for exactly two of the three subjects, which, in turn, is more than the number of students who opted for all the three subjects.  It is also known that at least one student opted for all the three subjects.  What is the maximum number of students who opted for Chemistry?

20 / 24

A number N has 4 factors. Sum of the factors other than 1 & itself is 30. How many values N can take?

21 / 24

A and B are in a shopping complex. They found an escalator that is moving up at a constant speed. Both use the escalator to climb up and they also walk up the escalator, but at different speeds. A's walking speed is twice of that of B. A reaches the top of the escalator after having climbed 40 steps while B takes only 30 steps to reach the top. If the escalator was turned off, how many steps would A have to take to walk up?

22 / 24

Mr. Mehta had Rs 57000. He invested a part of it in Bank at 10% p.a. simple interest and the remaining in Post Office at 8%. If he invested the total sum in Bank he would have received Rs 500 more as interest at end of the year. What is the sum invested in the Bank?

23 / 24

f(x) = |x – 2| + |x – 5| + |x – 9|. If f(k) = m and m is the least value of the function f(x), what is the value of m + k?

24 / 24

For every natural number n, the highest number that n∙(n2 – 1)∙(5n + 2) is always divisible by is