GRE diagnostic

This Free GRE Diagnostic Test has 20 questions. It offers a simple way to understand the type of questions to expect in the GRE. The Quantitative Reasoning questions cover topics like number properties, algebra, permutation and combination, arithmetic word problems – percentages, time and distance, etc. All 4 types of questions have been included. The Verbal reasoning section consists of questions on Sentence Equivalence, Text completion and Reading comprehension. Some of the questions have been developed in-house and some borrowed from different sources on GREprepclub (which are widely available).

The time limit to complete the test would be similar to an actual GRE test.

After the completion of the test, a score will be given as a percentage. Expected Percentage to GRE score conversion (this is NOT an exact conversion):

  • Less than 20%: Below 290 range => You need to work a lot on your prep
  • 20% to less than 40%: 290 to 300 range => You have basic idea of what the GMAT is. Keep at it
  • 40% to less than 60%: 300 to 310 range => Decent! But still lacking in multiple concepts. 
  • 60% to less than 80%: 310 to 320 range => You are pretty much there. Need a bit of final push
  • 80% or above: Above 320 range => You are almost there and maybe ready for the actual test with some brushing up 

GRE Diagnostic Test

Welcome to your GRE DIAGNOSTIC TEST

The quiz contains 20 questions - 10 on Quantitative reasoning and 10 on Verbal reasoning. You have 25 minutes to mark your responses.

All the best!

1 / 20

A 10 ml mixture of juice concentrate and water contained 40 percent juice. Some water was added to this mixture. The resulting mixture contained 10 percent juice.

Quantity A: Volume of water that was added

Quantity B: 18 ml

Mark your answer as:

  • A: If quantity A > quantity B
  • B: If quantity B > quantity A
  • C: If quantity A = quantity B
  • D: If there is no relation between the quantities

2 / 20

The random variable X is normally distributed. The values 650 and 850 are at the 60th and 90th percentiles of the distribution of X, respectively

Quantity A: The value at the 75th percentile of the distribution of X

Quantity B: 750

Mark your answer as:

  • A: If quantity A > quantity B
  • B: If quantity B > quantity A
  • C: If quantity A = quantity B
  • D: If there is no relation between the quantities

3 / 20

Four people each roll a fair die once.

Quantity A: The probability that at least two people will roll the same number

Quantity B: 70%

Mark your answer as:

  • A: If quantity A > quantity B
  • B: If quantity B > quantity A
  • C: If quantity A = quantity B
  • D: If there is no relation between the quantities

4 / 20

Scientists formerly believed that the rocky planets—Earth, Mercury, Venus, and Mars—were created by the rapid gravitational collapse of a dust cloud, a deflation giving rise to a dense orb. That view was challenged in the 1960s, when studies of Moon craters revealed that these craters were caused by the impact of objects that were in great abundance about 4.5 billion years ago but whose number appeared to have quickly decreased shortly thereafter. This observation rejuvenated Otto Schmidt’s 1944 theory of accretion. According to this theory, cosmic dust gradually lumped into ever-larger conglomerates: particulates, gravel, small and then larger balls, planetesimals (tiny planets), and, ultimately, planets. As the planetesimals became larger, their numbers decreased. Consequently, the number of collisions between planetesimals decreased.

The passage provides evidence that Schmidt would be likely to disagree with the theory presented in the first sentence over

5 / 20

Scientists formerly believed that the rocky planets—Earth, Mercury, Venus, and Mars—were created by the rapid gravitational collapse of a dust cloud, a deflation giving rise to a dense orb. That view was challenged in the 1960s, when studies of Moon craters revealed that these craters were caused by the impact of objects that were in great abundance about 4.5 billion years ago but whose number appeared to have quickly decreased shortly thereafter. This observation rejuvenated Otto Schmidt’s 1944 theory of accretion. According to this theory, cosmic dust gradually lumped into ever-larger conglomerates: particulates, gravel, small and then larger balls, planetesimals (tiny planets), and, ultimately, planets. As the planetesimals became larger, their numbers decreased. Consequently, the number of collisions between planetesimals decreased.

Which of the following best describes the “observation” referred to in the passage?

6 / 20

If f(x) = ax² + bx such that f(1) = f(-1) +2, what is the value of b?

7 / 20

The remainders when 72 is divided by two single-digit integers m and n are both positive. What is the remainder when 72 is divided by (m + n)?

8 / 20

On a linear scale, there are markings made at equal gaps. One such marking, P has a value 3¹¹. Another marking 2 places to the right of P has a value  3¹³. A marking 3 places to the left of P is Q. What is the value of Q÷3¹¹?

9 / 20

A student appeared for three tests. His mean score is 10 greater than his median score. If the range of scores of the student is 70 what is the difference between the median score and the lowest score?

10 / 20

The mean of n terms is x. If the first term is increased by 1, the second by 2, the third by 3, and so on till the last term, the mean becomes (x + k). If n = 12, what is the value of 2k?

11 / 20

Three numbers, a, b and c are obtained by rounding 22.567 to its tenths’ place, 225.78 to its units’ place and 2.45 to its units’ place, respectively. Which of the following are correct?

Answer all that apply

12 / 20

For Jack, income tax is between 15 and 35 percent of total income after an "exclusion" amount has been subtracted (that is, Jack does not have to pay any income tax on the exclusion amount, only on the remainder of his total income). If the exclusion amount is between $5,200 and $9,800, and Jack's income tax was $8,700, which of the following could have been Jack's total income?

Answer all that apply

13 / 20

In stark contrast to his later (i)_________, Simpson was largely (ii)_________ politics during his college years, despite the fact that the campus he attended was rife with political activity.

For each blank select one entry from the corresponding choices.
Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Blank (i):
A) activism
B) apathy
C) affability

Blank (ii):
D) devoted to
E) indifferent to
F) shaped by

14 / 20

Far from viewing Jefferson as a skeptical but enlightened intellectual, historians of the 1960s have portrayed him as (i) ___________ thinker, eager to fill the young with his political orthodoxy while censoring ideas he did not like.

For each blank select one entry from the corresponding column of choices.
Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Blank (i):
A) an adventurous
B) a doctrinaire
C) an eclectic
D) a judicious
E) a cynical

15 / 20

Before 1500 North America was inhabited by more than 300 cultural groups, each with different customs, social structures, world views, and languages; such diversity (i) _______ the existence of a single Native American culture.

For each blank select one entry from the corresponding choices.
Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Blank (i):
A) complements
B) implies
C) reiterates
D) argues against
E) explains away

16 / 20

The (i) _____ nature of classical tragedy in Athens belies the modern image of tragedy: in modern view tragedy is austere and stripped down, its representation of ideological and emotional conflicts so superbly compressed that there is nothing (ii) __________ for time to erode.

For each blank select one entry from the corresponding choices.
Fill all blanks in the way that best completes the text.

Blank (i):
A) unadorned
B) harmonious
C) multifaceted

Blank (ii):
D) inalienable
E) exigent
F) extraneous

17 / 20

The demands of ________ notwithstanding, a page or two in Dahl's recent book on democracy that considered what public-choice economics has to say about "democratic failure" —or at least a clear signpost to that literature—would have been very well spent.

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

18 / 20

A particular bacterium that has never encountered a particular virus will usually succumb to it, a _______ that may, surprisingly, be beneficial to the colony in which the bacterium lives.

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning. 

19 / 20

Though feminist in its implications, Yvonne Rainer’s 1974 film __________ the filmmaker’s active involvement in feminist politics.

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.

20 / 20

That people _______ the musical features of birdsongs suggests that despite the vast evolutionary gulf between birds and mammals, songbirds and humans share some common auditory perceptual abilities.

Select the two answer choices that, when used to complete the sentence, fit the meaning of the sentence as a whole and produce completed sentences that are alike in meaning.